In 2004 I purchased a home on my own (separated from my husband). In 2005
In 2004 I purchased a home on my own (separated from my husband). In 2005
In 2004 I purchased a home on my own (separated from my husband). In 2005 I refinanced from a 3 year arm to fixed - on my own, but was no longer separated from my husband. The title company employee had my husband sign what was to be the recored mortgage. He did not sign the note, was not on the application process or anything else during the refinance. Now he appears on the recorded mortgage at register of deeds. My question is, if this home is foreclosed on, will they try to make him responsible too? Will they sue him in the foreclosure suit? The mortgage has never showed up on his credit report. Will the foreclosure? (We live in Michigan.)
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