Posted on: 28th Oct, 2013 11:51 am
I currently own a property with my ex partner, he has never paid anything towards the mortgage. I have been to court where it was decided that the mortgage and house would transfer to me, stating my ex has no 'beneficial interest' in the property. However I am struggling to get the mortgage transferred to me, I need to save more money to pay off some of the equity before I can get the loan. This will take me about two years. The mortgage company have advised they will be agreeable to a transfer of title deed but not to take him off the mortgage until I have paid some of the equity off. If I left things as they are and I wanted to sell the property would say in a few years my ex be able to claim any share even though he has never paid anything towards it?
Hi Guest!
Welcome to the forums!
If your ex-spouse's name is on the property, then he might claim a share from the sale of the property. However, as the court has ordered that he does not have any 'beneficial interest' in the property, then you may not give him any money.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Welcome to the forums!
If your ex-spouse's name is on the property, then he might claim a share from the sale of the property. However, as the court has ordered that he does not have any 'beneficial interest' in the property, then you may not give him any money.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane