Posted on: 13th Jul, 2009 05:11 pm
We live in California - my wife had me sign an Interspousal Transfer Deed - we are now seperated and she sold the home - does this mean that I cannot get anything from that sale?
Hi David!
Welcome to forums!
As you've signed the inter-spousal transfer deed in your wife's favor, the property becomes your wife's separate property. After separation, if your wife has sold the property, you are not entitled to get anything from the sale proceeds.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Welcome to forums!
As you've signed the inter-spousal transfer deed in your wife's favor, the property becomes your wife's separate property. After separation, if your wife has sold the property, you are not entitled to get anything from the sale proceeds.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
My mother is providing 25% of the cash to help my husband and me purchase our first house. How can I be sure, in the event of divorce, that I receive 25% of sale price before the 50/50 division of remaining money received from sale?
Welcome Dee,
In my opinion, you will have to draft an agreement regarding this issue. Consult an attorney and he would help you in drafting the same.
In my opinion, you will have to draft an agreement regarding this issue. Consult an attorney and he would help you in drafting the same.