Posted on: 13th Aug, 2010 08:58 pm
If the husband and wife leagally separated and the wife was requred to QCD the house (with no mortage) to the husband, in California. Is the QCD really worth anything in a common law state? Tks
Hi CeaJ,
If the wife has transferred the property to her husband, then she won't be considered as one of the owners of the property. Once the deed has been signed and recorded, it would be legally binding. The wife can contact a real estate attorney based in California, in order to know further in this regard.
Thanks
If the wife has transferred the property to her husband, then she won't be considered as one of the owners of the property. Once the deed has been signed and recorded, it would be legally binding. The wife can contact a real estate attorney based in California, in order to know further in this regard.
Thanks