Posted on: 16th Apr, 2009 10:20 am
If I was gifted property before i was married in my name only and my husband then bought property...after we were married a house rental property. I am not on the deed or morgage. I signed an interspousal transfer deed at the time he bought the property. Could the morgage company hold me responsable for any of his debt on that home. My main concern is can they come after my property that I owned before we were married. We live in California. Thank you
Hi Guest!
Welcome to forums!
As your name is not on the property or on the mortgage, you will not be held responsible for the mortgage dues. As you owned the property before marriage, the lender will not be able to come after your property.
Sussane
Welcome to forums!
As your name is not on the property or on the mortgage, you will not be held responsible for the mortgage dues. As you owned the property before marriage, the lender will not be able to come after your property.
Sussane