Posted on: 16th Jun, 2010 10:46 am
Hi,
I am divorced over 2 years and have not lived in our home for 3 years. In our divorce settlement she is buying me out. She has not paid me in full as of yet. If I was to buy a new home, would I be considered a "firstime" homebuyer even if my name was on the deed to the home I do not live in?
I am divorced over 2 years and have not lived in our home for 3 years. In our divorce settlement she is buying me out. She has not paid me in full as of yet. If I was to buy a new home, would I be considered a "firstime" homebuyer even if my name was on the deed to the home I do not live in?
Hi rscaterer,
As your name is on the property deed, you will be considered as the owner of the property though do not live in it. Thus, you won't be considered as a first time buyer of the new property.
As your name is on the property deed, you will be considered as the owner of the property though do not live in it. Thus, you won't be considered as a first time buyer of the new property.