Posted on: 02nd Sep, 2010 10:22 am
I had bought a home prior to my marriage and now that I am married my husband is on the loan but not the deed. Can he qualify as a first time home buyer? He was not on the original loan and I have since refinanced and he was added on the loan.
Hi CAowner,
If your husband had not owned a property in the last 3 years, then he would be able to qualify as a first time home owner when he tries to buy a property of his own.
Thanks
If your husband had not owned a property in the last 3 years, then he would be able to qualify as a first time home owner when he tries to buy a property of his own.
Thanks