Posted on: 05th Apr, 2010 08:05 am
When I divorced in 2009, I bought a house so I could take advantage of the $8,000 tax credit. However, don't think that will happen. I personally have not owned a home in 10 years and do not own the home on Huff Road Florida (which my husband kept), my credit and Social Security number were not used to purchase the home. So, as I understand it I never legally owned that home. But because my name is still on the deed I may bot be eligable for the tax credit.
Is this true?
Is there anyway around this?
Is this true?
Is there anyway around this?
Hi kimgay!
Welcome to forums!
If your name is mentioned on the property presently owned by your husband, then you won't be considered as a first time home buyer. Thus, you won't be able to take advantage of the first time homebuyer's tax credit.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Welcome to forums!
If your name is mentioned on the property presently owned by your husband, then you won't be considered as a first time home buyer. Thus, you won't be able to take advantage of the first time homebuyer's tax credit.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane