Posted on: 23rd Aug, 2010 10:17 am
After a divorce, the property was quitclaimed to my father-in-law. 6 years ago the mobile home on the property was sold to a person who purchased it by assuming the loan. The land was already paid for and had no loans or leins against it. The land was then quitclaimed to the new owner of the mobile home. This person is now saying that because my wife didn't sign the quitclaim that the quitclaim from my father-in-law to the new owner was not legal. Is this true? I live in Georgia and by everything I have read, the quitclaim moves the title to the new owner. The Ga GIS web site shows the property was owned by my wife's ex-husband, then by her father, and is now owned by the new person. This person states that because my wife did not sign the quitclaim that the transfer was not legal. She also states that her name is on the title, but so is my wife's and she can't add her husband because my wife is on the title. What should I do from here?
hi bglundy!
welcome to forums!
if the wife did not sign the quit claim deed to your father-in-law, then he won't be considered as the owner of the property. but you've mentioned that your father did receive the quit claim deed. if that case, he can show the copy of the deed to the concerned person and prove that the transfer of property was legal. you might even consider contacting a real estate attorney who will help you in this matter further.
feel free to ask if you've further queries.
sussane
welcome to forums!
if the wife did not sign the quit claim deed to your father-in-law, then he won't be considered as the owner of the property. but you've mentioned that your father did receive the quit claim deed. if that case, he can show the copy of the deed to the concerned person and prove that the transfer of property was legal. you might even consider contacting a real estate attorney who will help you in this matter further.
feel free to ask if you've further queries.
sussane