Posted on: 17th Apr, 2009 07:31 pm
a contingency on our final approval for FHA was to pay an old judgment. I just got the disposition from the courts and it was dismissed in 2004. Does a dismissal satisfy the contingency?
Hi debc,
Welcome to the forums.
If the contingency involves paying an old judgment, then as per the order, it should be paid. However, now that the judgment has been dismissed, it means you don't need to pay it anymore. So, as per my understanding, the judgment dismissal can't stop you from qualifying for the FHA loan. All you need to do is, show satisfactory proof that the judgment has been dismissed.
May god bless you.
Samantha
Welcome to the forums.
If the contingency involves paying an old judgment, then as per the order, it should be paid. However, now that the judgment has been dismissed, it means you don't need to pay it anymore. So, as per my understanding, the judgment dismissal can't stop you from qualifying for the FHA loan. All you need to do is, show satisfactory proof that the judgment has been dismissed.
May god bless you.
Samantha
yes, dismissal is equivalent to payment in full as far as you're concerned.
