Posted on: 22nd May, 2011 09:22 am
I am so sorry if this has been hasked before but I could not find the answers for my specific questios. My husband and I were divorced over 5 yrs ago. In the divirce I agreed he could keep the home we shared in SC persuant to him providing and filing a quitclaim deed which he has never done. The home was financed in my name. I have come to realize through other posts that I am still liable for said mortage. Now he is talking of selling the home. Can he do this since the mortgage is still in my name? He is unable to get financing for the home in his name. Is there anything I can do to force him to do so? If he sells the home of course the title to the home will back in my name.
Hi bobbie!
Welcome to forums!
If the property is solely in your spouse's name, then he will be able to sell off the property though the mortgage still has your name on it. After the sale of the property, the lender may come after you in order to recover the deficient balance, if any. You can buy him out and get the property transferred in your name. Then, you can pay the mortgage on time and save the property.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Welcome to forums!
If the property is solely in your spouse's name, then he will be able to sell off the property though the mortgage still has your name on it. After the sale of the property, the lender may come after you in order to recover the deficient balance, if any. You can buy him out and get the property transferred in your name. Then, you can pay the mortgage on time and save the property.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane