Posted on: 05th Feb, 2010 10:01 am
I divorced my wife in 2004. At the time I just wanted out. I agreed to just walk away. The house was financed in her name only, which made it easy. We also owned some land that I believed she paid off when she received an inheritance from her father after his death. I signed a quitclaim deed to take my name off the land's title. As you can probably already guess, she had not paid off the land and my name is on the mortgage. She has missed numerous payment over the last 5.5 years and my credit is getting dinged up pretty bad. I signed the divorce paperwork in good faith that we did not have any joint debts. Do I have any recourse?
That maybe a question for a divorce attorney not a lender.
an attorney of some sort or another, for sure. but you stated, thegman, that you "believed" she had paid off the land with the inheritance. i think you may have to have some sort of tangible evidence that you were led to believe that or document that she lied to you somehow in order to get any relief in court. and of course, court is obviously where you'd get recourse if any is due you.
if you simply believed it because it sounded like a good idea, i doubt you have any right to compensation of any sort. and the lender isn't going to do anything to assist you either - at least not without court orders.
if you simply believed it because it sounded like a good idea, i doubt you have any right to compensation of any sort. and the lender isn't going to do anything to assist you either - at least not without court orders.
>>Do I have any recourse?
Sure - you can always go back to court. But it's tough after this many years. It's going to be especially difficult because you signed the paperwork that released her.
Sure - you can always go back to court. But it's tough after this many years. It's going to be especially difficult because you signed the paperwork that released her.
