Posted on: 10th Feb, 2010 04:48 am
i have been divorced for 13 years. at the time of the divorce, i signed a quitclaim deed and my former spouse was ordered to pay me my share of the house, which he did. yesterday i received a call from a lending institution stating my former spouse is wanting to refinance; i was told that i need to sign another form stating the money was in fact given to me at the time of divorce. does this really have to happen? i live in michigan if that makes any difference.
>>Does this really have to happen?
Yes - if the Underwriter is asking for it, it's required. Since your ex did his part and gave you your 50%, it'd be a nice courtesy gesture to sign the paper for him.
Yes - if the Underwriter is asking for it, it's required. Since your ex did his part and gave you your 50%, it'd be a nice courtesy gesture to sign the paper for him.