Posted on: 13th Apr, 2008 07:36 pm
I don't want the Moore-Marsden applied. We both purchased homes in 1993. when we married in 1998 I moved into his home and was added to the title in 2001. In 2003, we sold my home and used the proceeds in our marriage. We both contributed to the mortgae payment of hour primary residence and I probably contributedvmore than him. Now he wants to claim the Moore-Marsden for OUR primary residence and effectively cheat me out a of a equitable share of the home's value. The result will be that I leave the marriage without the property I brought to the marriage while he retains his....that seems unjust to me.
debraholloway, i think he's going by the laws of property division in community property states. The funds which you used in the marriage has nothing to do with the property division. But the fund that you contribute into paying the mortgage on the home matters when it comes to deciding who will get what part of the equity in the house. The equity gained by each of you will depend upon your shares of mortgage payment.
I suggest you talk to an attorney for further legal action to be taken.
I suggest you talk to an attorney for further legal action to be taken.
Hi debraholloway,
Welcome back.
Ryan has rightly said that your husband can claim the part of the mortgage payments that he has paid on your primary residence Moore Marsden Rule as both of you have contributed on that property after your marriage.
You should consult with an attorney for this.
Feel free to ask if you have any further questions
Best of luck,
Larry
Welcome back.
Ryan has rightly said that your husband can claim the part of the mortgage payments that he has paid on your primary residence Moore Marsden Rule as both of you have contributed on that property after your marriage.
You should consult with an attorney for this.
Feel free to ask if you have any further questions
Best of luck,
Larry