Posted on: 30th Sep, 2007 09:05 pm
If all expenses are paid with community money on house when bought in 1998 and deed signed over to spouse in 2001 with continued community funds paid..does moore marsden apply going back to 1998 or ? Plus does money paid for property taxes over the years apply to moore marsden or other formula for reimbursement ?
A Moore Marsden rule is applicable when one of the spouses has a property before marriage and has been paying the mortgage payment regularly. After marriage, the other spouse also makes contribution towards the mortgage payment. And as a result he/she get eligible for the property share of interest at the time of divorce.
when property taxes are paid out of community funds on
seperate property does Moore marsden account for them and if
not, are they reimbursed or simply considered gift.
Also, does Moore Marsden take into account money spent on repairs. and improvements as well ?
seperate property does Moore marsden account for them and if
not, are they reimbursed or simply considered gift.
Also, does Moore Marsden take into account money spent on repairs. and improvements as well ?
Hi Guest,
As far as I know, Moore Marsden Rule is not related to property taxes; neither is it applicable to home improvement or repairs directly. However, due to home improvement, the home value is increased and this appreciation is taken into account while calculating community property interest as per Moore Marsden Rule.
Take Care
As far as I know, Moore Marsden Rule is not related to property taxes; neither is it applicable to home improvement or repairs directly. However, due to home improvement, the home value is increased and this appreciation is taken into account while calculating community property interest as per Moore Marsden Rule.
Take Care
Would you think that taxes paid with community funds on residence owned by spouse under seperate property would be reimbursed? or just lost in shuffle. Asking as spouse does not want to pay for them out of seperate funds
I don't think Moore Marsden Rule applies to the taxes paid out of community funds.
if someone owned a house 20 years prior to marriage. He was married for 2.5 years. During that time, he took out a second loan on the house and paid his and his wife's credit cards and a car for him and his wife. Didn't he already give the community enough share with that?
Hi ivette,
Welcome to the forum.
As you owned the property before your marriage the property will not be considered as a community property.
"Didn't he already give the community enough share with that?"
But I cannot get what you actually want to mean here. Can you please illustrate it a bit more so that I can give you better information?
Best of luck,
Larry
Welcome to the forum.
As you owned the property before your marriage the property will not be considered as a community property.
"Didn't he already give the community enough share with that?"
But I cannot get what you actually want to mean here. Can you please illustrate it a bit more so that I can give you better information?
Best of luck,
Larry
May be Ivette wants to know whether the person has conrtributed enough of payments to get a share of interest in the community property. However here in this situation, it will not be a communtiy property as Larry said.