Posted on: 28th Oct, 2009 11:23 am
Hello, my husband purchased our home that was foreclosed on in Jan 2009 (he was layed off and continues to look for full employment). My income was not enough to pay mortgage and expenses so the foreclosure was inevitagle. This house was financed/purchased in his name only. My name does not appear on any finance or foreclosure docs. We are still married. I applied for a FHA mortgage but was told that since we are still married, the foreclosure will still reflect on me and lead to me being denied a FHA mortgage (in my name only). Can anyone explain why?
i cannot explain why. maybe - just maybe - there's a ruling by fha about this sort of situation, but i've never encountered it, so don't know.
i hope to be educated along with you, mom.
i hope to be educated along with you, mom.
Were you living in the home with him when it was foreclosed or are you separated?
Do you live with him now? Are you able to qualify for the loan fully under your own credit and income?
Do you live with him now? Are you able to qualify for the loan fully under your own credit and income?
Any one who gets drunk and threatens a woman in any way is not a man." And any woman who puts up with it belongs in therapy.
loanday, why do you have a quotation mark in your post? and what in the world does your post have to do with the question asked by momof2?
we all like to see ourselves with our name "up in lights," so to speak; but was that gratuitous comment really necessary? no, i'm not a drunkard and i don't strike people, but there's a time and a place...
we all like to see ourselves with our name "up in lights," so to speak; but was that gratuitous comment really necessary? no, i'm not a drunkard and i don't strike people, but there's a time and a place...