Posted on: 28th May, 2011 01:09 pm
we loaned money and hold a second mortgage on a 28 acre piece of ground with a house and barn on it. the first mortgage holder foreclosed but the borrower paid off the 1st mortgager before the redemtion period was up. i did not foreclose on my note. am i now in the first position?
thanks
dave
thanks
dave
Hi kasbah!
Welcome to forums!
If the first mortgage has been paid in full, then you will be primary lender. If you haven't received your dues, then you have the rights to foreclose the property.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Welcome to forums!
If the first mortgage has been paid in full, then you will be primary lender. If you haven't received your dues, then you have the rights to foreclose the property.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Thank you very much for your prompt response. I figured this out on my own the other day after I posted and we will be beginning forclosure procedures next week. The mortgagers have actually tried to ceonvey this property out from underneath our mortgage in the past two weeks. We'll unravel it soon.
Thanks Again,
Dave
Thanks Again,
Dave