Posted on: 13th Oct, 2009 05:00 pm
If a mortgage lender, files with the court, to issue a foreclosure to the borrower, and states in the loan papers, that they do not have in their possession , a promisory note, as count one. there are other parts of the loan papers, that bear initials of the borrower. As i recall, when the mortgage people send these same closing loan forms, i saw some numbers, which i did not agree with, and called the loan officer at that time, but the loan officer, said to me that do not worry about those figures, they are put there to satisfy the federal government. that is why the mortgage people do not have a promissory note, within the whole predatory scene. what case do i have at this present time, since my house is not worth as much, three years ago. ?
Welcome andalcior,
I guess the lender must have taken some illegal means to give you a loan and now it's planning to foreclose the property. In my opinion, you should speak to a real estate attorney and take his opinion in this regard. He will guide you in taking the right steps.
I guess the lender must have taken some illegal means to give you a loan and now it's planning to foreclose the property. In my opinion, you should speak to a real estate attorney and take his opinion in this regard. He will guide you in taking the right steps.