Posted on: 12th Dec, 2009 08:15 pm
Can I get a conventional loan with less than 53% owner occupancy in the complex of the property I am looking at.
I meant to say with 53% owner occupancy (not less than). My lender told me that, as of two months ago, ALL conventional loans require at least 70% owner occupancy. Does anyone know if this is true?
Every lender is different. I suggest that you check with another one.
I am indeed checking with other lenders tomorrow. Thanks.