Posted on: 25th Mar, 2009 09:48 am
MY FATHER PURCHASED A PROPERTY WITH INTENTIONS TO MOVE THER HE WENT THROUGH A SEPERATION AND THEN A DIVORCE IN THE MIDDLE OF ALL THAT MY HUSBAND AND MYSELF TOOK OVER THE PROPERTY MY FATHER NEVER MOVED HERE ,I HAV BEEN PAYING MORTAGAGE 100% AND ALL EXPENSES HERE . HOW CAN MY HUSBAND AND I TAKE OVR THE PROPERTY IN OUR NAME BECAUSE ITS ALL UNDER MY FATHERS NAME LOAN AND DEED ALL OF IT . MY FATHER DOES NOT WANT THE PROPERTY AT ALL JUST HIS NAME OFF OF ALL OF IT I DONT THINK MY HUSBAND AND I WILL QUALIFY FOR A LOAN OF ANY TYPE WE NEVER HAD A HOME LOAN OF OUR OWN.
pine, do you have credit otherwise? is it satisfactory?
obtaining a mortgage doesn't require that you would have owned before, so that's not an issue.
what your dad could do is sell the home to you, and you could take a new mortgage for the purpose of buying it, assuming you'd qualify.
obtaining a mortgage doesn't require that you would have owned before, so that's not an issue.
what your dad could do is sell the home to you, and you could take a new mortgage for the purpose of buying it, assuming you'd qualify.
Hi
Your father can simply sign a quitclaim deed to transfer the ownership title to you. But the problem is there is a mortgage on it and the lender won't allow you to make any changes to the title unless you get it refinanced. Therefore, having a decent credit is important in your situation.
Your father can simply sign a quitclaim deed to transfer the ownership title to you. But the problem is there is a mortgage on it and the lender won't allow you to make any changes to the title unless you get it refinanced. Therefore, having a decent credit is important in your situation.