Posted on: 13th Oct, 2009 03:12 am
my second wife left me to live with her lover. i sold the house in uk which was on my sole name and gave the money to my children from my first marriage who bought a house in uk. the first house was bought with the proceeds from the sale of a house that was jointly owned by myself and my first wife. when we divorced, my wife did not took any money and verbally agreed to leave her share of the house to go to our children. now i am getting divorced and my second wife has put a claim on the house. does she has a claim?
Though I do not have much idea about the UK property laws in case of divorce, but I think she will be able to claim her share. You have mentioned that she verbally agreed to give her share of the property to the children. But there is no written proof. As there is no written agreement, she will be able to claim her share from the sale of the property.