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does an abstract override a divorce decree?

Posted on: 16th Aug, 2010 06:03 pm
bought property from a man where we live.. the house was in bad shape and the property was never taken care of. we bought it cheap... now after we fix everything up and it's worth money... his ex-wife says she owns part of the property. the abstracts states that his grandmother left the property to him and her...they then divorced...the divorce states that there is not real property between them... where do we stand? does she really have rights to this property? she wants us to buy her out! the property was not worth much when we bought it...she says her and her ex had a verbal agreement that if he sold the property she got half of the money. she wants half of today's value not 13 years ago value!
Hi marshaelloyd!

Welcome to forums!

If the property has been left to both the husband and wife by the grandmother, then the wife owns a part of it. In such a situation, she can claim a portion of the sale proceeds. I would suggest you to contact your real estate attorney and take his opinion in this matter.

Feel free to ask if you've further queries.

Sussane
Posted on: 16th Aug, 2010 09:50 pm
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