Posted on: 18th Oct, 2009 02:00 am
my husband divorce last yr. court order says he shall execute interspousal transfer deed..but my husband did not enforce it bcoz ex wife was begging not to remove his name first in the mortgage bcoz of loan modification..does my husband violate the court order? the verbal agreement is until may 2010..can my husband still execute the transfer right after may 2010? or the order has become light if they violate or we say they disregard the order in timely manner? court says strictly construed and time is strictly of the essence what does this mean?
I think your husband is ok in what he is doign today
Unless the ex takes himto court for violating the court rulign there is no impact to him legally. If his EX is requesting him to do that, then h needs to get that in writing and notorize it
Unless the ex takes himto court for violating the court rulign there is no impact to him legally. If his EX is requesting him to do that, then h needs to get that in writing and notorize it
TANX ONE MORE QUESTION..COURT SAYS IF EX WIFE FAIL OR HAS LATE PAYMENT THE PROPRTY IS SUBJECT FOR IMMEDIATE SALE BUT MY HUSB AND FAIL TO DO SO..IN CONTRAst to court order that would mean my husband can no longer have the right to enforce the sale if in case ex wife will again makes late payment?
At this poitn it si better to have a writeen agreement between your husbdna and the ex, to protect him