Posted on: 13th Aug, 2010 02:05 pm
My husband and I are getting a divorce. He signed a grant deed over to me and I've had it recorded in Los Angeles County. The language reads, in part, "This conveyance is in dissolution of marriage by one spouse to the other, R & T 11927." We did this pretty much on our own, and neither of us is a lawyer.
So...Does this really mean that the house is all mine and ONLY mine, just like it says on the deed? Is this better than a quit claim, not as good, or just the same? I'd like to sell the house next year and want to know if I'm going to have any trouble with the title.
Thanks.
So...Does this really mean that the house is all mine and ONLY mine, just like it says on the deed? Is this better than a quit claim, not as good, or just the same? I'd like to sell the house next year and want to know if I'm going to have any trouble with the title.
Thanks.
hi lizholzer,
a grant deed is always a better option compared to a quit claim deed. as far as the line that you've quoted, i won't be the right person to let you know about it's proper meaning as i'm not an attorney. i would suggest you to contact a real estate attorney and show him the deed. he would be the right person to let you know whether or not you would be considered as the sole owner of the property.
thanks
a grant deed is always a better option compared to a quit claim deed. as far as the line that you've quoted, i won't be the right person to let you know about it's proper meaning as i'm not an attorney. i would suggest you to contact a real estate attorney and show him the deed. he would be the right person to let you know whether or not you would be considered as the sole owner of the property.
thanks