Posted on: 25th Aug, 2008 01:06 pm
Hi my husband andi live in texas I lived with him for 8yrs before we got married.He was told so that it would not be common law. to have me pay him rent. I did until the last yr 2000.he bought a house in 1996 while we were living togeter and me paying him rent. we have now been married 7 yrs and i had to sign a gas oil lease because he said he homesteaded the property after we got married.We have been having problems and my question is what is homesteading ? and If I levae do I have any part of the house? we have been remodeling the last 2 yrs. Kathryn
Welcome babsnew,
Homesteading refers to the practice of occupying an abandoned land or building that you actually don't own. But you said your husband has already bought the property. So, I'm not sure as to what he means by saying he has homesteaded the property. He may be talking about getting homestead tax exemption on property. So, I suppose it's better if you ask him first and then share what he is actually speaking of.
Homesteading refers to the practice of occupying an abandoned land or building that you actually don't own. But you said your husband has already bought the property. So, I'm not sure as to what he means by saying he has homesteaded the property. He may be talking about getting homestead tax exemption on property. So, I suppose it's better if you ask him first and then share what he is actually speaking of.
A Texas homestead protects a primary residence from creditors. His use of the term there does not make sense.
Texas is a community property state, so you have a community property interest in the real property. Consult with a family law attorney.
Texas is a community property state, so you have a community property interest in the real property. Consult with a family law attorney.
