Posted on: 19th Mar, 2009 07:09 am
When my husband and I signed for the house with a friend of ours, the attorneys that did all of the paperwork for the seller did not include our friend on the deed. Only on the loan. When we called the bank for information, they advised that this was not supposed to have happened. is it illegal to close on a house and not have all parties on the deed? Thank you for any replies! :D
Hi adita,
This query has already been discussed on the following page:
http://www.mortgagefit.com/propertytransfer/excludecosigner-legal.html#83512
This query has already been discussed on the following page:
http://www.mortgagefit.com/propertytransfer/excludecosigner-legal.html#83512