Posted on: 13th Apr, 2009 11:16 am
My mom currently own a morgate with my father. She get a collection bill from surgery three years ago. hey both were unable to pay the morgate, I have been paying their morgate over almost 2 year now. My question is if she do a quitclaim will it consider a fraud?The debt she owned due to her surgery 3 years ago but just received a collection about 2 months now?
if you're talking about your mom quit claiming her interest to you so as to avoid the medical collection, then that will definitely be considered a fraudulent transfer, in my opinion.
No, she consider filing for bankruptcy. She wants to quit claim the property for my father or me. Beside they couldn't pay their morgate anymore.
hi tracy,
transferring property just before filing bankruptcy will be considered as fraudulent. if she transfers the property to you now, she'll have to wait for at least a year in order to file bankruptcy.
thanks
transferring property just before filing bankruptcy will be considered as fraudulent. if she transfers the property to you now, she'll have to wait for at least a year in order to file bankruptcy.
thanks