Posted on: 16th Dec, 2009 04:45 am
Can someone claim after they have sold property that they did not intend on selling it all, and sue to have part of the property put back into their names? They claim that the title company put both tracts on the deed.(tract 1 and tract 2) instead of just tract one. They signed the deed and said they did not know they were selling both tracts. This was three years ago. The tracts were then sold again since then. Do they have any legal recourse in claiming that they accidentally sold two tracts instead of one?
Hi ttiller,
I don't think that those who sold the property have any legal recourse to get their ownership. If the sale of the property was legally valid, they cannot claim the property back from the buyers. If the buyer received the full ownership of the property through the sale, he cannot be forced to sign over part of the property to the seller.
I don't think that those who sold the property have any legal recourse to get their ownership. If the sale of the property was legally valid, they cannot claim the property back from the buyers. If the buyer received the full ownership of the property through the sale, he cannot be forced to sign over part of the property to the seller.
assuming that subsequent purchasers of this property had title insurance, the former owners' claims could be covered by said insurance, thereby eliminating any hardship on either of the subsequent owners. will that give them back their land? of course not, but it may satisfy them if that's what they really want.
