Posted on: 18th Dec, 2009 02:30 pm
My great-grandfather has just quit claimed his half of two properties over to me because he wants to avoid probate down the road. He has only done his half, so I own the property with my great-grandmother. If for some reason someone wants to contest this, could I get in trouble? He is of sound mind and made these decisions himself, but someone told me that I could get sued for him doing that, is this true?
Hi npichone!
Welcome to forums!
If the property deed, that your great grandfather gave you, has been notarized and recorded at the county recorder's office, then it will be considered as a valid document. You'll be considered as one of the owners of the property as the property deed includes your name. As you never forced forced your great grandfather to transfer the property to you, no one can sue you for the property. If someone does so, I don't think he/she stands a chance to win the case.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Welcome to forums!
If the property deed, that your great grandfather gave you, has been notarized and recorded at the county recorder's office, then it will be considered as a valid document. You'll be considered as one of the owners of the property as the property deed includes your name. As you never forced forced your great grandfather to transfer the property to you, no one can sue you for the property. If someone does so, I don't think he/she stands a chance to win the case.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane