Posted on: 23rd Mar, 2009 03:49 am
why would a person who has ownership of a real estate property from his mother via a quit claim deed from her life estate (she is still living) do a 2nd quit deed from himself to himself on this property?? county records show that he has quit deeded the property from himself to himself now twice.
Hi Concerned,
It sounds weird to me as well. There must have been some sort of mistake on part of the recorder's office, it looks like. However, I don't think that will cause any problem to you. You will still have the title to the property in your name.
Thanks,
Jerry
It sounds weird to me as well. There must have been some sort of mistake on part of the recorder's office, it looks like. However, I don't think that will cause any problem to you. You will still have the title to the property in your name.
Thanks,
Jerry
hmmm...concerned you didn't say you have any interest in the property. do you? are you simply concerned because you're looking at the land records and wonder?
anyway, jerry's thesis that there may have been an error that cause the rerecording of the document makes sense. that may very well have been the reason.
anyway, jerry's thesis that there may have been an error that cause the rerecording of the document makes sense. that may very well have been the reason.
