Posted on: 13th Oct, 2008 03:41 am
done with attorney at realtor office and has since been refied again.still married in ma and disabled.terms were met and agreements made.who owns the house?affected by marrage ? still marital asset to other spouse.can i sell or need for probate?
Sale was made not as part of divorce over a year ago but now is my full asset.
Sale was made not as part of divorce over a year ago but now is my full asset.
Hi lugnuts!
If you have refinanced the property, then I don't think your spouse will have a claim on it. If the deed shows that it is still a marital asset, then there has been some mistake. You should contact a real estate attorney and get it rectified. As far as selling the property is concerned, yes, you can sell if the property is in your name.
Thanks,
Jerry
If you have refinanced the property, then I don't think your spouse will have a claim on it. If the deed shows that it is still a marital asset, then there has been some mistake. You should contact a real estate attorney and get it rectified. As far as selling the property is concerned, yes, you can sell if the property is in your name.
Thanks,
Jerry