Posted on: 28th Sep, 2010 04:53 pm
My home is only in my name. My husband's home is only in his name.
We have kept property in Texas separate because we both have children. Now I am selling my home to move out of state to handle my parents probate and live in home that I inherited. In the sale of my Texas home, can husband OR his children claim any of the money? I need the wording that would exempt him from any interest in my home's sale. Thanks!
We have kept property in Texas separate because we both have children. Now I am selling my home to move out of state to handle my parents probate and live in home that I inherited. In the sale of my Texas home, can husband OR his children claim any of the money? I need the wording that would exempt him from any interest in my home's sale. Thanks!
Hi Guest,
If it's your separate property and purchased prior to marriage, then your husband or his children won't be able to claim anything from the sale proceeds. If the property was purchased after marriage, then you can ask him to sign an inter-spousal transfer deed in order to give away his rights over the property.
Thanks
If it's your separate property and purchased prior to marriage, then your husband or his children won't be able to claim anything from the sale proceeds. If the property was purchased after marriage, then you can ask him to sign an inter-spousal transfer deed in order to give away his rights over the property.
Thanks