Posted on: 16th Jun, 2009 03:01 pm
I bought a home with my mom and dad. All 3 of us are on the loan and title. My husband is not on the loan or title. Is he entitled to anything if we divorce and have to sell the house. We live in Texas, a community property state.
Hi rlanfaith,
Your husband should not be entitled to any share of the property. He is neither on the loan nor on the title. He does not have an ownership to the property, nor is he responsible for the loan payments. He, I suppose, did not make any contribution towards the purchase of the house and he also does not seem to make the mortgage payments. In such a situation, he is unlikely to get any share of the property when it is sold.
Your husband should not be entitled to any share of the property. He is neither on the loan nor on the title. He does not have an ownership to the property, nor is he responsible for the loan payments. He, I suppose, did not make any contribution towards the purchase of the house and he also does not seem to make the mortgage payments. In such a situation, he is unlikely to get any share of the property when it is sold.
Hi rlanfaith,
Welcome to our forum.
If your husbands name is not mentioned on Loan or property deed since he is not responsible to pay due to lender or he is not share in property.
As you say you live in Texas, community property state it will not supports to your husband. If he try to get share in your property you can get help of court to avoid him from take share of property.
Thanks & Regards.
Gunz.ijjistaff.
:D :D :D :D
Welcome to our forum.
If your husbands name is not mentioned on Loan or property deed since he is not responsible to pay due to lender or he is not share in property.
As you say you live in Texas, community property state it will not supports to your husband. If he try to get share in your property you can get help of court to avoid him from take share of property.
Thanks & Regards.
Gunz.ijjistaff.
:D :D :D :D
