Posted on: 19th Sep, 2009 11:28 am
We live in TX. We have been married for many years and this is our third house we have bought together. We were applying for a loan and the bank saw that my husband had granted 1/2 of his undivided interest on the house to me. They didn't understand why he did that, red flag. He did not inform me when he did it on May 1, 2007. The bank loan was how I found out. What could possibly have been the reason? (No one is sick or talking divorce.) Thanks you so very much, Kelly
Kelly have you asked your husband this question
Probably he is the only one who knows why
Probably he is the only one who knows why
Hi kellykoll!
Welcome to forums!
I think he had added you to the property deed just to give you ownership rights to the property. Thus, you will be considered as one of the owners of the property and have equal rights to it.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane
Welcome to forums!
I think he had added you to the property deed just to give you ownership rights to the property. Thus, you will be considered as one of the owners of the property and have equal rights to it.
Feel free to ask if you've further queries.
Sussane